[loan]

This does not seem right. I have never operated on an agreement that is not countersigned but I can't imagine that this can be a legal strategy. You could literally promise anything in a contract & then not sign your end. I don't see that happening. When a MCA contract is signed, it is rarely countersigned & sent back to the merchant. If there is a legal issue, then the funder is going to sign it & then submit it to the lawyer. I really doubt that funders are submitting future purchase agreements, without them signing them, to the courts.

When you control the money (Funder & Commission), you control the conversation. If there is not a countersigned agreement, then what governs the relationship? Nothing. Who benefits from this? The one that controls the money.

Nice story there buddy. But you're forgetting one thing - there are state laws that govern commercial transaction. A funder can write whatever the f*** they want (and most high-risk funders just copy off of others), but if it violates the law, there is a case. For example, if you agree to mow someone's lawn and get paid, and they don't pay you (and no contract was signed), does that mean you can't sue them? Hell no. You can.

The legal system is complex, and I shouldn't have expected MCA brokers/funders that can barely string a coherent sentence together or construct a logical argument with ffacts to actually provide useful advice. But anyway, some people just accept backdooring.

And regarding the "stress and aggravation", there shouldn't be any. If this stresses you out the MCA industry is not for you. Anyway, glad this at least sparked a conversation to make people think.